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kelman -> RE: Harold Camping is at it Again! (7/5/2009 4:53:19 AM)
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quote:
ORIGINAL: Paul_Jerome quote:
ORIGINAL: kelman Doesn't 1Peter 2:24 contradict the view that sins were paid for "from the foundation of the world"? Afterall, it does say Christ bore our sins in His own body on the tree. Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed. Kelman, excellent verse, and also agreeing with what I understand to be Retrobyter’s analysis of fitting everything in harmoniously to find truth (1Cr 2:13), I would start by noting that 1Pe 2:24 is preceded by and tied in to 1Pe 2:21 which states that ‘leaving us an example’ in the Lord Christ Jesus. The fact that Christ hung on a tree is a demonstration for the entire world that He was cursed by God (Deu 2:21-22, Gal 3:13). His death and resurrection in AD 33 was a ‘sign’ (Mat 12:39-40, Mat 16:4, Luk 11:29-30). Bear in mind that Christ spoke in parables (Mat 13:13, Mar 4:34) and the historical events recorded in the bible many times were parables. As mentioned above, Jesus Christ as the Son of God, suffered punishment on the cross as a sign - a demonstration - of what He had done before the world was. Still, we have 1Pet 3:18 "For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:". So, did Christ have a body(flesh) which was put to death "from the foundation of the world"? quote:
Let’s add these verses into our understanding of what happened in AD 33. In Jhn 19:30 He says: “It is finished” and He was still alive. The thief on the cross who was saved was told in Luk 23:43 “To day shalt thou be with me in paradise” and Christ’s flesh did not see corruption (Act 2:31). If His spirit left His body and went to paradise on that very day then it doesn’t sound like He was still being punished. I don't see the relevance. Why would punishment still be needed after death on the cross? I agree Christ was in heaven in His soul existence as was the thief's - "to day". quote:
I believe the bible teaches that Christ as God died before the world began and then was born unto us and died on the cross as a demonstration – a sign – pointing to what He has already done before the world was. Yes, I can see that some verses could lead to this conclusion; yet, my explanation would be that whatever God "knows" it's as if it already "was". To all intents and purposes it was accomplished by His very foreknowledge. That's how certain and perfect is God's knowledge that He can speak of future occurrences as having happened. Sort of like the prophecies of the OT or Jesus paying for sins that has as yet not been committed. Still, I've never been fully reconciled with the biblical terminology which calls the Lord Jesus Christ "the Son" or "begotten". So, your explanation is certainly one to consider, although, I'm loathe to take anything away from the cross experience. quote:
Pro 19:19 A man of great wrath shall suffer punishment: for if thou deliver [him], yet thou must do it again. Surely this can't be a reference to Christ suffering punishment twice...once to pay for sins(from the foundation of the world), the second as a demonstration. It says a "man of wrath", a man who is vengeful, angry, etc. Help out peole like this and you'll be doing it again and again is pretty much what it means. How does Gal 4:4,5 affect your conclusion? "But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, 5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.". This appears to be saying that Christ as the Son was sent "to redeem" not that He had "already" redeemed.
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